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You need to debug the website remotely. Which three actions should you take? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. A. In the Azure management portal, configure a monitoring endpoint. B. In the Azure management portal, set remote debugging to On and set the Visual Studio version to 2013. C. Install the Azure SDK for .NET on the computer that runs Visual Studio. D. In the web.config file for the website, set the debug attribute of the compilation element to true. E. In the Azure management portal, set the web hosting plan to Standard. Answer: B, C, D
You need to implement data storage for patient information. What should you do? A. Use the Update Entity operation of the Table Service REST API. B. Use the Put Blob operation of the Blob Service REST API. C. Use the Put Message operation of the Create Queue REST API. D. Use the Set Share Metadata operation of the File Service REST API. Answer: A
You need to configure the virtual network.What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. A. Configure a point-to-site virtual network. B. Configure a site-to-site virtual network. C. Configure a multi-site virtual network. D. Configure a cloud-only virtual network. Answer: A, B
The website does not receive alerts quickly enough. You need to resolve the issue. What should you do? A. Enable automatic scaling for the website. B. Manually Increase the instance count for the worker role. C. Increase the amount of swap memory for the VM instance. D. Set the monitoring level to Verbose for the worker role. E. Enable automatic scaling for the worker role. Answer: B
Users report that after periods of inactivity the website is slow to render pages and to process sign-in attempts. You need to ensure that the website is always responsive. What should you do? A. Add the following markup at line WC14: B. Add the following markup at line WC08: C. Add the following markup at line WC14: D. In the Azure management portal, enable Always On support for the website. E. In the Azure management portal, disable Always On support for the website. Answer: A
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Share some CCNA Collaboration 210-060 exam questions and answers below. Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager protocol communicates with collaboration endpoints? A. SCCP B. RTP C. SIP D. CDP Answer: C
Which Cisco Unified CME GUI menu option is used to navigate to the screen used to add or change a user name or password using the Cisco Unified CME GUI interface? A. Administration > Update System Info B. Configure > System Parameters C. Configure > Phones D. Configure > Extensions Answer: C
Which two technologies comprise a Cisco Presence deployment? (Choose two.) A. Cisco Unified Presence Server B. Cisco Unity Connection C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager D. Active Directory E. Cisco Unified Border Element F. Cisco Expressway Answer: A,C
An engineer wants to ensure that Cisco Jabber clients can communicate with instant messaging clients who are not registered to the same Jabber cluster. Which technology meets this requirement? A. intercluster trunk B. federation C. SIP trunk D. PRI Answer: B
An end user has an 7945 IP phone, but is unable to launch any of the IP phone applications. A network engineer has confirmed that the device is subscribed to the appropriate applications in Cisco Unified Communications Manager. How should the engineer instruct the user to launch the IP phone applications? A. Select the "?" button on the IP phone. B. Select the globe button on the IP phone. C. Select Settings > User Preferences. D. Select Settings > Device Configuration. Answer: B
A user would like all calls to be forwarded to voice mail. The user's phone is not set up with a soft key for this feature. Which option accomplishes this configuration from within the Cisco Unified Communication Administrator Directory Number configuration page? A. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward No Coverage External > Select voice mail check box B. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward Busy External > Select voice mail check box C. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward All > Select voice mail check box D. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward Unregistered External > Select voice mail check box Answer: C
An SCCP IP phone places a call to a SIP phone that is registered to the same Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express. During the active call, call waiting indicates a second call is incoming to the handset, but the user decides to ignore it. In this scenario, what is the combined total number of signaling conversations and media flows that used the SCCP phone as an endpoint? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 E. 6 Answer: B
An engineer is adding user accounts to Cisco Unity Connection and needs to limit the maximum length of messages. Which aspect defines this limit when adding new accounts? A. user templates B. user partitions and search spaces C. user CoS D. user mailbox store E. user roles Answer: C
An engineer needs to block any outbound calls to specific numbers. Which dial plan element is used to restrict called numbers? A. partition B. route group C. route list D. calling search space Answer: D
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Share some CCNP 300-135 exam questions and answers below. R1 and R2 OSPF neighbor. Which two statements are true? (Choose two) (Output from show ip ospf neighbors on 2 routers, one of them shows FULL/DR, the other FULL/-, you need to know how were they configured and will they exchange routes) A. They are not neighbors B. R1 (non-DR) will not update its routes to R2 C. Router R2 is configured with ospf point-to-point command (R2 is the router that shows as FULL/-) D. They need to be configured as OSPF NBMA E. R2 should be configured as stub Answer: BC
Ticket 4 NATACL
TROUBLE TICKET STATEMENT:
The implementation group has been using thetest bed to do a ¡®proof-of-concept¡¯that required both client 1 and client 2 to access the Web Server at 209.65.200.241.After several changed to interface status, network addressing, routing schemes and layer 2 connectivity, at trouble ticket has been opened indicating that client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 (internet Server). show run by yourself to obtain the following information: Configuration on R1 ip nat inside source list nat_pool interface Serial0/0/0/1 overload ! ip access-list standard nat_pool permit 10.1.0.0 ! interface Serial0/0/0/1 ip address 209.65.200.224 255.255.255.252 ip nat outside ! interfaceSerial0/0/0/0.12 ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.252 ip nat inside ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 TSHOOT ip ospd authentication message-digest
On Which device is the fault condition located? A. R1 B. R2 C. R3 D. R4 E. DSW1 F. DSW2 G. ASW1 Answer: A
The Fault Condition is related to which technology? A. BGP B. NTP C. IP NAT D. IPv4 OSPF Routing E. IPv4 OSPF Redistribution F. IPv6 OSPF Routing G. IPv4 layer 3 security Answer: A
Ticket 5 R1ACL
TROUBLE TICKET STATEMENT: The implementation group has been using thetest bed to do a ¡®proof-of-concept¡¯that required both client 1 and client 2 to access the Web Server at 209.65.200.241.After several changed to interface status, network addressing, routing schemes and layer 2 connectivity, at trouble ticket has been opened indicating that client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 (internet Server). show run by yourself to obtain the following information: Client 1 is not able to reach the WebServer at 209.65.200.241. Initial troubleshooting shows that R1 is also not able to reach the WebServer. R1 also does not have any active BGP neighbor. Configuration on R1 ! interface Serial0/0/0/1 description link to ISP ip address 209.65.200.224 255.255.255.252 ip access-group edge_security in ip nat outside ip virtual-reassembly ntp brasdcast client net broadcast key 1 no cdp enable !! ip access-list nat_traffic permit 10.1.0.0 0.0.255.255 ip access-list nat_traffic permit 10.2.0.0 0.0.255.255 ! ip access-list edge_security deny ip 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 any ip access-list edge_security deny ip 172.16.0.0 0.15.255.255 any ip access-list edge_security deny ip 192.168.0.0 0.0.255.255 any ip access-list edge_security deny ip 127.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 any ip access-list edge_security permit ip host 209.65.200.241 any
On which device is the fault condition located? A. R1 B. R2 C. R3 D. R4 E. DSW1 F. DSW2 G. ASW1 Answer: A
What is the solution of the fault condition? A. Under the interface Serial0/0/0 configuration enter the ip nat inside command B. Under the interface Serial0/0/1 configuration enter the ip nat outside command C. Under the ip access-list standar nat_trafic configuration enter the permit 10.2.0.0 0.0.255.255 command D. Under the ip access-list standar nat_trafic configuration enter the permit 209.65.200.0 0.0.0.255 command Answer: C
The Fault Condition is related to which technology? A. BGP B. NAT C. IP NAT D. IPv4 OSPF Routing E. IPv4 OSPF Redistribution F. IPv6 OSPF Routing G. IPv4 layer 3 security Answer: G
What is the MTU¡¯s size in a GRE tunnel? A. 1630 B. 1476 C. 1500 D. 1900 Answer: B
The Fault Condition is related to which technology? A. BGP B. NAT C. IP NAT D. IPv4 OSPF Routing E. IPv4 OSPF Redistribution F. IPv6 OSPF Routing G. IPv4 layer 3 security Answer: C
What is the solution of the fault condition? A. Under the BGP process,enter the bgp redistribute-internal command B. Under the BGP process, bgp confederation identifier 65001 command C. Delete the current BGP process and reenter all of the commands using 65002 as the AS number. D. Under the BGP process, delete the neighbor 209.56.200.226 remote-as 65002 command enter the neighbor 209.65.200.226 remote-as 65002 command. Answer: D
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Share some CCNA Routing and Switching 200-125 exam questions and answers below. A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port? A. This is a 10 Mb/s switch port. B. This is a 100 Mb/s switch port. C. This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex. D. This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex. E. This is a port on a network interface card in a PC. Answer: C
What are types of IPv6 static routes? (Choose Three.) A. Recursive routes B. Directly connected routes C. Fully specified routes D. Advertised routes E. Virtual links F. Redistributed routes Answer: ABC
Which mode is compatible with Trunk, Access, and desirable ports? A. Trunk Ports B. Access Ports C. Dynamic Auto D. Dynamic Desirable Answer: C
What are three benefits of implementing vlans?(choose three) A. A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many physical groups to use the same network infrastructure B. Broadcast storms can be mitigated by decreasing the number of broadcast domains, thus increasing their size. C. A higher level of network security can be reached by separating sensitive data traffic from other network traffic. D. Port-based vlans increase switch-port use efficient, thanks to 802.1Q trunks E. A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many logical networks to use the same network infrastructure. F. Broadcast storms can be mitigated by increasing the number of broadcast domains,thus reducing their size. G. VLANs make it easier for IT staff to configure new logical groups,because the vlans all belong to the same broadcast domain. Answer: CEF
Which command sequence can you enter to create VLAN 20 and assign it to an interface on a switch? A. Switch(config)#vlan 20 Switch(config)#Interface gig x/y Switch(config-if)#switchport access vlan 20 B. Switch(config)#Interface gig x/y Switch(config-if)#vlan 20 Switch(config-vlan)#switchport access vlan 20 C. Switch(config)#vlan 20 Switch(config)#Interface vlan 20 Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk native vlan 20 D. Switch(config)#vlan 20 Switch(config)#Interface vlan 20 Switch(config-if)#switchport access vlan 20 E. Switch(config)#vlan 20 Switch(config)#Interface vlan 20 Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 20 Answer: A
After you configure the Loopback0 interface, which command can you enter to verify the status of the interface and determine whether fast switching is enabled? A. Router#show ip interface loopback 0 B. Router#show run C. Router#show interface loopback 0 D. Router#show ip interface brief Answer: A
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You create a 150 GB thick-provisioned volume. In that volume, you create a 50 GB LUN with space-reserve enabled. You create another 50 GB LUN with space-reserve disabled. Before any data is written to either LUN or a Snapshot is taken, how much space will be available in the volume for additional LUNs? A. 150 GB B. 100 GB C. 75 GB D. 50 GB Answer: B
You create a 1000 GB volume with space-guarantee set to none and fractional-reserve set to 0. In that volume you create a 400 GB LUN with space-reserve enabled. How much space is available in the volume before data is written to the LUN? A. 400 GB B. 0 GB C. 600 GB D. 1000 GB Answer: C
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Which type of connectivity is supported when connecting third-party arrays through FlexArray Virtualization for back-end storage to a NetApp cluster? A. iSCSI B. SAS C. FC D. Infiniband Answer: C
In the storage failover command, what does the bypass-optimization option do? A. It takes over the partner node without performing aggregate relocation. B. It migrates all logical interfaces during takeover. C. It takes over without migrating all logical interfaces. D. It takes over the partner node performing aggregate relocation. Answer: A
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